You know OM, you’re right. Both men and women have committed some horrible acts against each other. Actually, that's what I have been trying to convince all of the "women are dainty little flowers who couldn't hurt a fly" crowd for years. They are capable of lying, cheating stealing, killing, you name it, just like us men. But, that is not the point I am trying to get across. The point I am attempting to stress is the behavior and reaction of the system itself when someone of the female gender commits one of these acts, as opposed to when a man commits one of these acts. Think about the cases I already stated, but put a man in place as the perpetrator, and imagine what the system's reaction would have been. Do you really believe that a 23 year old male teacher, raping a 14 year old female student, would have done less than 20 years in prison, much less get off without a day like La Fave? Or, a husband, blasting a hole in his wife's back, while sleeping none the less, would have done anything less than life in prison, if not the death penalty if that state had it, or get a few months in jail like Winkler? And, imagine a husband running his wife over with the car, again and again until she was dead, with the act on videotape? Would he have gotten joint custody of the children in the relationship, like Harris did? Come on people, forget your "heaven forbid I appear politically incorrect or intellectually unprogressive" views for one second, and see the truth for what it is.
Some of the women who answered my post talk about how they are glad they removed the child's father from the child's life. They talk about all the justifications and reasons that they believe made it right to do this - he was a pedophile - or some other type of monster. But, since there was no jury that found the man guilty of this, how do they know these acts really took place? Did they see it with their own eyes? Did they have an absolutely infallible witness who saw the act and then recounted it to them? Did they have physical proof in the form of a medical exam or report? Maybe, the proof was the testimony of the child to authorities? Although I am not completely discounting the testimony of young children, I'm sure everyone has heard of Parental Alienation Syndrome. It's just a fancy word for a child being brainwashed to believe and repeat whatever the alienating parent tells the child to believe and say. And, just because the child has grown into an adult now and still corroborates the alienating parent's story doesn't matter. A false implanted memory can become as real as an actual memory, if the child’s brainwashing was done methodically enough. This has been documented in adult brainwash victims, who must then undergo a "deprogramming" procedure, so how much more with a child? So, without the aforementioned jury conviction, physical evidence, or witnesses, from where does the authority in their harangue, to spout commands about what will happen with these children, come from? Maybe it comes from their belief that the children are their personal property, to do with as they will. And, yet again, maybe they truly believe what they claim. You wouldn't believe what the human mind is capable of utterly convincing itself of, if there is strong enough emotion such as hate, or vengeance driving it. So, then again, I ask the question, without some form of proof as to what really happened in these situations, what makes the mother's story or view more valid than the father's? Maybe the fathers in some of these situations have their own versions or beliefs as to what happened - true or false. Yet if they have no proof and their versions are based solely on what they believed, what is the distinction between the mothers stories and beliefs and their own? Why are not the children taken from the mother based on the fathers story? Because ultimately, without a conviction or some kind of proof, isn't that what someone claiming without proof is, a story, like a bedtime story, fireside story, or a classroom story . So then, am I correct in assuming that everyone agrees an unsubstantiated story or allegation becomes enough reason to destroy a relationship between a father and his child? Oh, and don't take these fathers keeping quiet and not fighting the allegations as proof that they were guilty. I know many men who loved their kids very much, but were simply not willing to risk having their lives destroyed, or decades in prison, by putting their lives in the hands of a gender-biased legal system that is stacked against them before they ever set foot in the courtroom for the trial.
Another answer from these women might be, they don't need verification by our legal system, or a jury, to act on their belief that their child is in danger. I myself agree with this. My ex was taking our daughter to an unlicensed, inappropriate sitter when she was 2. There were many children years older than her, boys and girls, and they were supervised by only one older lady. I acted, mindless of what the law said, and as any parent concerned about my child should, and took my daughter out of this place. I was hunted down by the police, and the judge granted a restraining order to my ex. All because I tried to protect my daughter, regardless of what the "law" mandated. But, when my ex motioned to take our daughter to Poland, to her mother's house where my ex had confessed to me that her mother’s live-in boyfriend had sexually abused her as a child, not only did the judge grant the motion after my objections based on this reason, but I was held in contempt for refusing to sign the travel visa papers. This blows the reasoning that many reading this post are most likely thinking right now out of the water - in situations where child abuse is even a possibility, the judge and the system err on the side of caution. Well, if that's the case, why is it that the judge, saw my ex's decision to put our daughter in an improper, possibly dangerous, child care situation as perfectly reasonable, to the point of legally punishing me for taking my daughter out of there, and to the point of letting her go back there. But, scoffed at my concern over the danger my ex mother in law’s live in boyfriend posed to my daughter, again, even to the point of punishing me with a contempt charge when I would not sign the travel visa application? Wouldn't the erring on the side of caution philosophy have been applicable in both situations?
Bottom line is, and someone explain it to me if my violent "savage" brain cannot comprehend, lacking any form of legal proof that what the mother is claiming is the case, what makes her decisions towards the children and allegations towards the father, more valid than the father's decisions towards the children or allegations, if any, towards the mother? If you don't believe this is the case, just go to
www.census.gov and look up what gender has custody of the children in over 85% of the custody disputes. But, then the original post I placed answers my own question doesn't it? The same coddling and allowances lavished on females in the family law system are being lavished on Hillary to be allowed to run for President without question, despite, as I read the Constitution, and apparently as lawyers, and many others who are filing legal actions of their own based on my line of reasoning, see it, there being big question as to whether the Constitution allows for a female President. Our present legal system, and family law system more than any, still recognizes (whether consciously or unconsciously) an unspoken chivalrous code that has existed for thousands of years in the laws of many societies. In the past, The Bible, the Code of Hammurabi, speak of special allowances and exemptions for females (the widow) but not the male (widower). In the present, The US Violence Against Women Act (VAWA) specifically names females to be protected from violence, but no VAMA. The UN's declaration of Human Rights has special verbiage devoted to the attention and protection of women, but not to men. Think of it in other terms and you might get the idea. If the US had enacted the Violence Against Caucasians Act, or if the UN had verbiage giving special attention and protection to Latinos, or any other specific ethnic group, do you think that there might be some cries of racism? Yet special allowances are made in the law specifically related to the female gender everyday, and no one bats an eye concerning the reverse sexism that is so clearly being committed. But, you know what, I was raised by parents who told me not hit girls, and to treat girls more gently because they are more fragile, so, because of those chivalrous ideals being ingrained into me from a young boy, I would most likely not have a problem with these special allowances being a part of the law. But, the problem is, they have now discriminatorily stripped me of my contact and my rights to my child. Back in the day when these chivalrous codes sprang up, they didn’t hurt men because women were not direct competitors with men for power, finances, authority over family etc.. But now, if I hold the door open for a women on my way to a job interview, she might get the job I’m trying for because she got there before me. If I take physical abuse from my girlfriend or wife, but don’t call the cops because of my chivalrous ideals, I might end up there myself when she calls first claiming that I beat her. See, now that women are direct competitors with men for power, resources, authority, these chivalrous directives in the law, hurt men. Because, a double standard is applied - little helpless red riding hood needing special recognition and protection from the "big bad man" when in divorce court, family court, or criminal court, but full throttle “femafia” female wanting equal rights and standing when going for that job, promotion, or political office. I’ve heard the same statement many times from many different women “I want equal rights, as long as it’s to my benefit.” But, when it’s to a woman’s benefit to assume the role of the helpless female needing doors opened, or dinner paid for, or the special protections of a gender-biased chivalrous law, she is more than willing to temporarily restrain the “femafia” persona and beliefs to get what she wants.
It is this reason and this reason only that Hillary is being allowed to run, despite the clear question of the Constitutionally legal validity of her campaign. And, despite all of the men out there in politics and the courtrooms knowing that this is a valid legal dispute, far be it from them to appear un-chivalrous or ungentlemanly and not , “hold the door open” for little old Hillary, even if it is to the detriment of their own gender.
P.S. For those of you who don’t recognize how important a father is to a child, or who believe a “bad” father should be kept away from a child, just look at the recent case of Jayci Yaeger. She would not leave this world until she could see her “bad” father, who was in prison, one last time. And, the mother allowed her to see this "bad" father in prison. See, kids don't know good or bad, they just know if they love their dad. So no matter the actual wrong the dad did, or, the "wrong" he was accused of doing, if the child loves his or her dad and wants to see him, it does more harm to the child to remove the dad from his or her life, than to let that child maintain a relationship with him even if it need be supervised. Even though I do not wish the same circumstances on the ladies from this post, I wonder if they would deal with a like situation in the same way? Or, if they would let their own vendettas rob their children of a last visit with their dads? I think their present behavior, sans the life or death circumstances, gives the answer.
John Alvarez